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In Beta Distribution, (O 4M P)/6 . Why is M multiply with 4 and not any other number?

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Poonam Jain Project Manager| Morgan Stanley Hicksville, Ny, United States
Beta Distribution= (O+4M+P)/6

Here,
p= pessimistic
r= most likely
o= optimistic
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Eduin Fernando Valdes Alvarado Project Manager| F y F Fabricamos Futuro Villavicencio, Meta, Colombia
Very interesting, thanks for sharing
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Sante Delle-Vergini, PhD Senior Project Manager| Infosys Melbourne, Victoria, Australia
I can't take credit, my friend Google helped me to find these answers :-)
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1 reply by Poonam Jain
Nov 01, 2018 11:46 AM
Poonam Jain
...
:) Pass him some thanks too..
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Stephen Grey Associate Director| Broadleaf Capital International Pty Ltd Australia
You will find a discussion of the origins of the Beta PERT distribution here http://broadleaf.com.au/resource-material/beta-pert-origins/ . I got so fed up with people asserting that the distribution has special meaning and should be used in preference to others that I sought out the original papers and summarised them. It is very useful but it is just one of many you might choose.

Below are extracts from the paper, numbered 1 and 2. The formula for the standard deviation is an approximation based on an analogy with the Normal distribution. The coefficients of the formula used to estimate the mean (1, 4 and 1) are based on an approximate fit to the solutions of a cubic equation. It was all a perfectly valid expedient measure to make it possible to carry out calculations with slide rules and log tables in the days before electronic calculators let alone inexpensive ubiquitous computing power.

David Vose, in his book https://www.wiley.com/en-au/Risk+Analysis%...p-9780470512845 discusses the implications of choosing one distribution over another, especially BetaPERT versus Triangular. You just need to to think what it represents and how that relates to what you believe about the value it represents, hopefully getting the two in accord with one another. There is no simple answer that will always be valid. You either adopt a distribution blindly or understand the differences and make an informed choice.

My paper has references to the originals.

1. The choice of the Beta distribution is explained by the mathematician on the original PERT team (Clark, 1962) in the following way.

“The author has no information concerning distributions of activity times, in particular, it is not suggested that the beta or any other distribution is appropriate. But the analysis requires some model for the distribution of activity times, the parameters of the distribution being the mode and the extremes. The distribution that first comes to the author’s mind is the beta distribution.”

2. Derivation of mean and variance

The team knew that, to help the engineers assess the uncertainty in their activity’s durations, they were starting with a three point estimate. They needed to convert those three points into a mean and variance and, for convenience, Clark selected a Beta distribution to do this.

Clark further explains that three values, minimum, mode and maximum, is not enough to completely define a Beta distribution and a further assumption is required to permit the three point estimate to be converted to a mean and variance. By analogy with a Normal distribution, in which almost all outcomes (99.73%) fall within plus or minus three standard deviations of the mean or a range of six standard deviations (six sigma), he assumed that the range between the minimum and the maximum values of a forecast represents six standard deviations of the duration’s distribution. This defined the variance, the square of the standard deviation, and fixed the Beta distribution’s shape parameters.

Even once the Beta distribution was defined by the three point estimate and the six sigma assumption it was still a challenge to derive the mean analytically as it required the solution of a cubic equation, but a simple approximation was found to be a good fit to the exact solution. Using this approximation and the six sigma assumption, what we know as the Beta PERT distribution was defined. It is specified by three values, the minimum A, the mode or most likely value M and maximum B and has a mean and variance calculated as follows. [IMAGE NOT REPLICATED HERE]

The equation for the mean is an approximation to an exact solution and the equation for the variance is based on an approximate analogy with the Normal distribution.
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1 reply by Poonam Jain
Nov 01, 2018 12:14 PM
Poonam Jain
...
Thank You Stephen for the references and such a nice explanation. Though lot of people use whatever they like for calculating the mean. But I think there should be a reason for every specific method over another for calculations.

The beta distribution is a weighted average in which more weight is given to the most likely estimate. This alteration to the formula and placing more weight on the most likely estimate is made to increase the accuracy of the estimate by making it follow the Normal Distribution shape. Hence, in most of the cases, the Beta (PERT) distribution has been proven to be more accurate than the 3-Point triangular estimation.

So I thought to choose this over another with better understanding. Thank you for your valuable response.
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VINAYAK KATKAR Construction Manager, BE Civil, PMP, CAPM| Terminal Industriel Polyvalent de San Pedro (TIPSP) - Olam International San Pedro, Côte d'Ivoire
Oct 30, 2018 6:19 PM
Replying to Sante Delle-Vergini, PhD
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I saw this explanation in a search:

"4/6ths approximates 66.7%, which approximates 68%, which approximates the area under a normal distribution within one standard deviation of the mean."

"The reason why you multiply by 4 to get the Mean (and not 5, 6, 7, etc.) is because the number 4 is tied to the shape of the underlying probability curve."

"The cone of uncertainty uses the factor 4 for the beginning phase of the project."
Very Intresting .... Great
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Poonam Jain Project Manager| Morgan Stanley Hicksville, Ny, United States
Oct 31, 2018 3:04 PM
Replying to Sante Delle-Vergini, PhD
...
I can't take credit, my friend Google helped me to find these answers :-)
:) Pass him some thanks too..
avatar
Poonam Jain Project Manager| Morgan Stanley Hicksville, Ny, United States
Nov 01, 2018 3:31 AM
Replying to Stephen Grey
...
You will find a discussion of the origins of the Beta PERT distribution here http://broadleaf.com.au/resource-material/beta-pert-origins/ . I got so fed up with people asserting that the distribution has special meaning and should be used in preference to others that I sought out the original papers and summarised them. It is very useful but it is just one of many you might choose.

Below are extracts from the paper, numbered 1 and 2. The formula for the standard deviation is an approximation based on an analogy with the Normal distribution. The coefficients of the formula used to estimate the mean (1, 4 and 1) are based on an approximate fit to the solutions of a cubic equation. It was all a perfectly valid expedient measure to make it possible to carry out calculations with slide rules and log tables in the days before electronic calculators let alone inexpensive ubiquitous computing power.

David Vose, in his book https://www.wiley.com/en-au/Risk+Analysis%...p-9780470512845 discusses the implications of choosing one distribution over another, especially BetaPERT versus Triangular. You just need to to think what it represents and how that relates to what you believe about the value it represents, hopefully getting the two in accord with one another. There is no simple answer that will always be valid. You either adopt a distribution blindly or understand the differences and make an informed choice.

My paper has references to the originals.

1. The choice of the Beta distribution is explained by the mathematician on the original PERT team (Clark, 1962) in the following way.

“The author has no information concerning distributions of activity times, in particular, it is not suggested that the beta or any other distribution is appropriate. But the analysis requires some model for the distribution of activity times, the parameters of the distribution being the mode and the extremes. The distribution that first comes to the author’s mind is the beta distribution.”

2. Derivation of mean and variance

The team knew that, to help the engineers assess the uncertainty in their activity’s durations, they were starting with a three point estimate. They needed to convert those three points into a mean and variance and, for convenience, Clark selected a Beta distribution to do this.

Clark further explains that three values, minimum, mode and maximum, is not enough to completely define a Beta distribution and a further assumption is required to permit the three point estimate to be converted to a mean and variance. By analogy with a Normal distribution, in which almost all outcomes (99.73%) fall within plus or minus three standard deviations of the mean or a range of six standard deviations (six sigma), he assumed that the range between the minimum and the maximum values of a forecast represents six standard deviations of the duration’s distribution. This defined the variance, the square of the standard deviation, and fixed the Beta distribution’s shape parameters.

Even once the Beta distribution was defined by the three point estimate and the six sigma assumption it was still a challenge to derive the mean analytically as it required the solution of a cubic equation, but a simple approximation was found to be a good fit to the exact solution. Using this approximation and the six sigma assumption, what we know as the Beta PERT distribution was defined. It is specified by three values, the minimum A, the mode or most likely value M and maximum B and has a mean and variance calculated as follows. [IMAGE NOT REPLICATED HERE]

The equation for the mean is an approximation to an exact solution and the equation for the variance is based on an approximate analogy with the Normal distribution.
Thank You Stephen for the references and such a nice explanation. Though lot of people use whatever they like for calculating the mean. But I think there should be a reason for every specific method over another for calculations.

The beta distribution is a weighted average in which more weight is given to the most likely estimate. This alteration to the formula and placing more weight on the most likely estimate is made to increase the accuracy of the estimate by making it follow the Normal Distribution shape. Hence, in most of the cases, the Beta (PERT) distribution has been proven to be more accurate than the 3-Point triangular estimation.

So I thought to choose this over another with better understanding. Thank you for your valuable response.
...
1 reply by Keith Novak
Nov 01, 2018 12:36 PM
Keith Novak
...
Actually it is not making it follow the "normal distribution shape". That is a specific type of symmetric distribution with a standard deviation of 1.0. The beta formula accounts for the fact that the tails (high and lows) might be very different which means the bell curve is centered to one side, and the uncertainty might be greater or less resulting in a taller or flatter curve respectively.

As Stephen points out, in statistics there are a variety of distribution shapes to choose from depending on which is the best fit for the underlying situation. The beta distribution formula is a rough and ready way to boil any bell shaped curve down to a 3 point estimate and find an easy algebraic result rather than requiring a mastery of statistics that might give you a more refined answer for a problem with a lot of uncertainty.
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Keith Novak Tukwila, Wa, United States
Nov 01, 2018 12:14 PM
Replying to Poonam Jain
...
Thank You Stephen for the references and such a nice explanation. Though lot of people use whatever they like for calculating the mean. But I think there should be a reason for every specific method over another for calculations.

The beta distribution is a weighted average in which more weight is given to the most likely estimate. This alteration to the formula and placing more weight on the most likely estimate is made to increase the accuracy of the estimate by making it follow the Normal Distribution shape. Hence, in most of the cases, the Beta (PERT) distribution has been proven to be more accurate than the 3-Point triangular estimation.

So I thought to choose this over another with better understanding. Thank you for your valuable response.
Actually it is not making it follow the "normal distribution shape". That is a specific type of symmetric distribution with a standard deviation of 1.0. The beta formula accounts for the fact that the tails (high and lows) might be very different which means the bell curve is centered to one side, and the uncertainty might be greater or less resulting in a taller or flatter curve respectively.

As Stephen points out, in statistics there are a variety of distribution shapes to choose from depending on which is the best fit for the underlying situation. The beta distribution formula is a rough and ready way to boil any bell shaped curve down to a 3 point estimate and find an easy algebraic result rather than requiring a mastery of statistics that might give you a more refined answer for a problem with a lot of uncertainty.
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Brian Sharkey Project Manager| Spectrum Enterprise Cerritos, Ca, United States
Given that this question has already been successfully answered, but willing to give another simplified, non-technical way to look at this equation, see the following explanation:

PERT is a "weighted" average duration estimation technique.

PERT combines probability theory and statistics to derive a formula for the average (mean) activity duration from the three point estimates. PERT uses 1-4-1 weightage i.e. it gives 4 times more weightage to the Most likely (M) estimate than the Optimistic and Pessimistic estimates. The formula for PERT estimate is:

PERT estimate = (O + 4M +P) / 6
Note: PERT estimate is also known as the Expected Activity Duration or EAD or simply Expected Duration.

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If we were using a simple average method, then the formula would be, (O + M + P) / 3, with the denominator of 3 since there are three equally treated variables. However, this is much less reliable than PERT so let's use the weighed average of (O + 4M + P) as the numerator, in which we can see that there are a total weight of 6 with the variables, causing us to divide by 6 to give us the result. Therefore, this formula can also be written as (1O + 4M + 1P) / 6. Which illustrates that M is being treated as 4 times as important as O and 4 times as important as P for estimating. Or, twice as important as O and P combined. Which works out as a more reliable and easy way to give the weighted average by relying more on the MOST likely. Without having to "prove" the math.
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Wade Harshman Scrum Master| GDIT Indianapolis, In, United States
I've heard arguments and seen at least 1 case where the "4" was changed. The basis was the confidence of the estimates. The argument basically says that if your optimistic or pessimistic estimates are considered highly improbable, then you should adjust the formula. Similarly, if the assumed probability of 2 or more estimates isn't significantly different, then you should level the formula. (The counter-argument is that the team should go back and revisit their estimates.) This could screw up your normal distribution, but could give you more reliable results.

I'm not going to argue for or against this. People who are smarter than me can get into that. I wouldn't do it carelessly, though. And make sure that if you alter the numerator, you adjust the denominator accordingly, or your estimate will be really off!

EDIT: I just realized that the PMBOK doesn't give added weight to the 3-point estimates, unless the user specifically wants a Beta distribution. So that basically backs up what everyone has said. See PMBOK (6th ed) 6.4.2.4 and 7.2.2.5.
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Steve Ratkaj Ontario, Canada
Excellent discussion and very poignant as well as we have been in discussions within our organization about implementing 3-Point estimates. Some have confounded (at least I think) this with Critical Path Methodology.
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